A-4.2 Theorems

⟨Theorem A-4.2.1⟩ Order Property (I)

For a ∈ 𝔽, and n β‰₯1, an = 1 if and only if ord𝔽(a)Β |Β n

(i.e., π—ˆπ—‹π–½π”½(a) divides n).

Proof.

1.
Forward Proof: If π—ˆπ—‹π–½π”½(a)Β |Β n, then for π—ˆπ—‹π–½π”½(a) = k where k is a’s order, and n = π‘™π‘˜ for some integer l.

Then, an = aπ‘™π‘˜ = (ak)l = 1l = 1.

2.
Backward Proof: If an = 1, then for π—ˆπ—‹π–½π”½(a) = k, n β‰₯k, because by definition of order, k is the smallest value that satisfies ak = 1. For any n > k, n has to be a multiple of k, because in order to satisfy an = ak β‹…anβˆ’k = 1 β‹…anβˆ’k = 1, the next smallest possible value for n is 2k (as ak is the smallest value that is equal to 1). By induction, the possible values of n are n = k,2k,3k,β‹―.
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⟨Theorem A-4.2.2⟩ Order Property (II)

If π—ˆπ—‹π–½π”½(a) = k, then for any n β‰₯1, π—ˆπ—‹π–½π”½(an) = k gcd(k,n).

Proof.

1.
ak,a2k,a3k,...Β  = 1.
2.
Given π—ˆπ—‹π–½π”½(an) = m, (an)m,(an)2m,(an)3m,...Β  = 1
3.
Note that by definition of order, x = k is the smallest value that satisfies ax = 1. Thus, given π—ˆπ—‹π–½π”½(an) = m, then m is the smallest integer that makes (an)m = 1. Note that (an)m should be a multiple of ak, which means π‘šπ‘› should a multiple of k. The smallest possible integer m that makes π‘šπ‘› a multiple of k is m = k gcd(k,n).
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⟨Theorem A-4.2.3⟩ Order Property (III)

Given kΒ |Β n, π—ˆπ—‹π–½π”½(a) = π‘˜π‘› if and only if π—ˆπ—‹π–½π”½(ak) = n.

Proof.

1.
Forward Proof: Given π—ˆπ—‹π–½π”½(a) = π‘˜π‘›, and given TheoremΒ A-4.2.2, π—ˆπ—‹π–½π”½(ak) = π‘›π‘˜ gcd(k,π‘›π‘˜) = π‘›π‘˜ k = n.
2.
Backward Proof: Given π—ˆπ—‹π–½π”½(ak) = n, we should prove that π—ˆπ—‹π–½π”½(a) = π‘›π‘˜. Let π—ˆπ—‹π–½π”½(a) = m. Then, by TheoremA-4.2.2, π—ˆπ—‹π–½π”½(ak) = m gcd(m,k), which is n. In other words, m = n β‹…gcd(m,k). But as kΒ |Β n, it is also true that kΒ |Β m. Then, gcd(m,k) = k. Therefore, m = n β‹…gcd(m,k) = π‘›π‘˜.
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⟨TheoremΒ A-4.2.4⟩ Fermat’s Little Theorem

Given |𝔽|= p (a prime) and a ∈ 𝔽, ap = a.

Proof.

1.
{a1,a2,...Β ap} forms a multiplicative subgroup H of the group G = 𝔽× (i.e., 𝔽 without {0}).
2.
Lagrange’s Group Theory states that for any subgroup H in a group G, |H| divides |G|. This means that given π—ˆπ—‹π–½G(a) = k (where ak = 1), k divides |G| (where |G|= p βˆ’1).
3.
Therefore, given π‘˜π‘™ = p βˆ’1 for some integer l, apβˆ’1 = (ak)l = 1l = 1. Thus, ap = a.
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